8. Your patient is a 14 year old female who has been complaining of lower abdominal pain and vomiting for the last 2 days. She has a history of IDDM. She was sent to you from urgent care because she was found to have a WBC of 21.4 and was sent for a CT scan of her Abdomen and Pelvis to rule out appendicitis. . Her urine and pelvic exam are negative for any evidence of infection. Her BMP is as follows Sodium 133, K 3.2, Cl 94, CO2, 13, BUN 25, Creatinine 0.5. Glucose 351. Her CT scan came back normal, and she able to tolerate PO fluids and her abdominal exam is essentially benign. Which of the following is the best management option?
A. Discharge the patient home her CT scan is normal and she can tolerate PO fluids
B. Admit the patient for IV fluids
C. Order a serum acetone and ABG
D. Consult a general surgeon, the patient has a high WBC and needs to be observed
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